ARMY BOARD FOR CORRECTION OF MILITARY RECORDS RECORD OF PROCEEDINGS IN THE CASE OF: BOARD DATE: 10 March 2020 DOCKET NUMBER: AR20180013820 APPLICANT REQUESTS: a. amendment of the U.S. Army Crime Records Center (USACRC) probable cause finding to reflect that probable cause did not exist at the time of the investigation to substantiate the offense; b. removal of his name from the U.S. Army Criminal Investigation Command (USACIDC or CID) Military Police Report of Investigation (ROI) and titling block; and c. deletion of his name and associated unfounded investigation information from the Defense Clearance and Investigation Index (DCII), as well as any other database under the direct control of the CID. APPLICANT'S SUPPORTING DOCUMENTS CONSIDERED BY THE BOARD: * DD Form 149 (Application for Correction of Military Record under the Provisions of Title 10, U.S. Code, Section 1552) * Brief in Support of Application for Correction of Record, Counsel, undated * Exhibit 1 – Letter, Counsel, dated 20 October 2017, subject: Request to Amend Information and Delete Name from Titling Block of Law Enforcement Reports (LERs) 2013-MPCXXX-XXXXX-XX and 2009-MPCXXX-XXXXX-XX * Exhibit 2 – Letter, CID, CRC, dated 27 November 2017 * Exhibit 3 – DA Form 3975 (MP Report), Section VII (Narrative), page 5 of 13 pages, undated, signed by Master Sergeant (MSG) B____ * Exhibit 4 – DA Form 3975, Section VII, page 5 of 13 pages, undated, signed by Mr. C____ * Exhibit 5 – Enlisted Record Brief * Medical Record, Applicant, dated 24 June 2017, page 132 FACTS: 1. The applicant defers to counsel. 2. Counsel states: a. Maintenance of this post-service unfounded information has caused the applicant considerable prejudicial impact and thus its continued existence and dissemination constitutes both material injustice and material error. As the applicant was honorably discharged from the U.S. Army, maintaining the information in question serves no legitimate purpose. b. The ROIs in question arose from two separate incidents where the applicant was investigated for various alleged violations. (1) The first ROI, dated 27 October 2009, was based on telephonic notification that the applicant, an MP, was intoxicated and physically aggressive toward other MPs after being told to return to his barracks room. The narrative notes were written by MSG B____, a third person not present when the alleged actions took place. (2) The second ROI, dated 17 August 2013, pertains to an incident that allegedly occurred on 17 August 2017 while the applicant was still an MP stationed in Germany. The applicant was a passenger in a vehicle that was involved in a minor motor vehicle accident in Germany. After the accident occurred, occupants of the vehicles exited, and a verbal altercation ensued between the applicant and another military member prior to arrival of the German police. Based on the language barrier, the German authorities described applicant as noncompliant. He was later released to the MPs and returned to the Provost Marshal Office where he was processed and released. c. In both investigations, the individuals writing the narrative portion of the reports were not present when the alleged events occurred. Despite the second-hand nature of the information supporting the allegations, authorities in both instances made determinations of "founded." The applicant was never criminally charged with any of the offenses and finished his required term of service, receiving an honorable/medical discharge related to his diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). d. The applicant applied for several civilian positions, including one in the law enforcement field, and was advised he was not eligible for such employment due to his "criminal record." After losing several opportunities to obtain employment for the same reason, the applicant requested a criminal history record check through the Federal Bureau of Investigation where he discovered the information showing in his criminal history was the titling action and investigation entered by CID into the DCII. e. On 20 October 2017, the applicant, through counsel, filed an appeal with the Director, CRC, to amend the information and delete his name from the titling block of LERs 2013-MPCXXX-XXXXX-XX and 2009-MPCXXX-XXXXX-XX. f. On 27 November 2017, the request to amend the information and delete his name from the titling block of the LERs was denied. The applicant was within 3 years of discovery of the alleged error or injustice when his appeal was denied on 27 November 2017. g. Failure of the CRC to remove the applicant's name from the title block of the CID ROI constitutes both material error and material injustice since, based upon the available evidence, credible information clearly did not exist lo believe the applicant committed the offense for which titled as a subject at the time the investigation was initiated. At the time these incidents occurred, the applicant was suffering from PTSD acquired as a result of several forward deployments associated with Operation Iraqi Freedom. The applicant's condition rendered him incapable of forming the intent necessary to support the allegations against him. h. Maintenance and dissemination of derogatory investigative information where the subject was cleared of any criminal culpability and is no longer actively associated with the U.S. military constitutes nothing less than a blatant and unsupported infringement of a constitutional liberty interest that is improper, particularly and specifically prejudicial to former service members, and represents a clear material error and injustice requiring correction by a board. i. Based on the totality of the evidence presented in support of the applicant's petition, he sufficiently demonstrated through new, relevant, and material evidence that the requested amendment relating to changing of the probable cause finding to correctly reflect that probable cause did not exist at the time of the investigation was properly met. j. Removal of one's name from the title block of an LER or ROI is "an investigative determination that is independent of judicial, nonjudicial, or administrative action taken against the individual or the results of such action." k. The Department of Defense's (DOD's) use of the DCII database as an "information sharing" vehicle for DOD law enforcement agencies, as well as the dissemination of non-conviction investigative information, creates a prejudice that is unique among service members. There exists no analogous civilian counterpart. Civilians who are charged but not convicted of criminal activity typically enjoy an absolute right to expungement of investigative records. The titling process related to civilians is not part of a Federal criminal history database and civilian titling decisions made by law enforcement are rarely discoverable by outside employers. 3. The applicant enlisted in the Regular Army on 5 September 2005. He completed advanced individual training and was awarded military occupational specialty 31B (MP). 4. The applicant's records contain the MP Report, dated 17 August 2013, with attached sworn statements, the investigator's statement, and investigator's activity summary show the applicant was a passenger in a traffic accident on 16 August 2013 on the autobahn in Schweinfurt, Germany, causing damage to a guard rail. The applicant was intoxicated and he engaged in a physical altercation with the driver of the vehicle while waiting for the German police. When the German police arrived, the applicant was handcuffed and detained until the MPs arrived. The applicant was charged with: * simple assault * communicating a threat * being drunk and disorderly * resisting apprehension (MP) 5. The DA Form 3975 (exhibit 3) signed by MSG B____, Provost Sergeant, shows he was telephonically notified by MP K____ who informed him: * the applicant was told to return to his barracks due to his high state of intoxication * the applicant refused and physically pushed MP K____ * upon apprehension, the applicant physically struck MP Z____ with his head and physically elbowed MP K____ at the same time * once the applicant reported to the MP station, he was read his rights, which he invoked and requested a lawyer * he was then further processed and released to his unit * the case was closed 6. The second DA Form 3975 (exhibit 4) signed by Mr. C____, Director of Emergency Services (DES), states: * he received information on 16 August 2013 of a vehicle that was in an accident that was owned by F____, the driver of the vehicle * the applicant got into a verbal altercation with the driver, which turned into a physical altercation, prior to the MPs arriving to the scene * when the MPs arrived, the German police stated the applicant was intoxicated and disorderly * the applicant directed threats toward the two MPs who arrived at the scene of the accident – he was noncompliant and resisted arrest * Investigator A____ briefed Captain (CPT) W____, Office of the Staff Judge Advocate, on all aspects of the case in October 2013 * CPT W____ opined that the applicant should be titled for the offenses of assault consummated by a battery, assault on a MP officer, communicating a threat, being drunk and disorderly, and resisting arrest * deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and fingerprints were obtained from the applicant on 19 August 2013 7. On 11 September 2013, the applicant was counseled in writing by his platoon sergeant who informed him that a DA Form 268 (Report to Suspend Favorable Personnel Actions (Flag)), dated 13 September 2013, was initiated against him for adverse action for an incident that occurred on the morning of 8 June 2013. The applicant initialed the form indicating he agreed with the information. He did not make any remarks. 8. On 28 October 2013, the applicant received a nonjudicial punishment under the provisions of Article 15, Uniform Code of Military Justice, for resisting apprehension, being drunk and disorderly, and wrongfully communicating a threat on or about 16 August 2013 at or near Schweinfurt, Germany. He did not demand trial by court- martial and requested a closed hearing. He was found guilty of some specifications. His punishment included reduction in rank/grade to specialist/E-4; extra duty for 30 days; restriction to the limits of the company area, dining/medical facility, place of worship, and gymnasium for 30 days; and an oral reprimand. He did not appeal the nonjudicial punishment. 9. The applicant's Enlisted Record Brief, dated 16 September 2014, shows he had no flagging actions pending. 10. The applicant was discharged effective 15 September 2014. He completed 9 years and 1 day of active service during this period. His service was characterized as honorable. His DD Form 214 (Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty) shows he served in Iraq from 18 December 2007 to 5 March 2009. 11. The applicant's records contain a DA Form 2173 (Statement of Medical Examination and Duty Status), dated 9 December 2015, showing he was examined on 16 June 2015 for PTSD. The examiner opined that his condition was incurred in the line of duty and stated the applicant was serving on active duty and the condition was not due to his own negligence or misconduct. Per a review of the applicant's records, he had been evaluated for symptoms of PTSD which were attributed to his service in Iraq from 18 December 2007 to 5 March 2009. 12. The applicant's records contain a DA Form 199 (Informal Physical Evaluation Board Proceedings), dated 20 July 2016. The board found the applicant physically unfit by reason of PTSD and recommended a disability rating of 50 percent and permanent disability retirement. 13. On 27 July 2016, the U.S. Army Physical Disability Agency advised the applicant that he had been found to have a disability based on their findings and recommendation and he would be permanently retired with a disability rating of 50 percent. 14. The applicant's records contain U.S. Army Physical Disability Agency Order D 209-06, dated 27 July 2016, retiring him by reason of physical disability and placing him on the Retired List effective 31 August 2016. He was assigned a disability rating of 50 percent. 15. The applicant provided page 132 of his medical record, created 24 June 2017, showing a review of systems included PTSD, anxiety, and depression. 16. On 20 October 2017 in a petition to the CRC, counsel requested amendment of information in the CID ROI to reflect that sufficient probable cause did not exist to substantiate the offense and deletion of the applicant's name from the titling block of the LERs. Counsel stated the applicant was never criminally charged for the offenses and finished his term of service, receiving an honorable/medical discharge for his diagnosis of PTSD. 17. On 27 November 2017, the CRC denied counsel's request, stating the information provided did not constitute new or relevant information needed to amend the ROI. The CRC Director stated: b. The MP reports are part of a system of records exempt from the disclosure provisions of the Freedom of Information Act. The names of law enforcement personnel, along with names, social security numbers and other personal items of information pertaining to third parties were withheld as the release could violate the personal privacy of other individuals mentioned in the report. c. The partial denial was made on behalf of the Commander, CID, the initial denial authority for CID records under the FOIA. The applicant may appeal the decision within 90 days of receipt of the letter. His appeal must state the basis for his disagreement with the denial and he should state the justification for its release. His appeal should be made through the CRC for forwarding, as appropriate, to the Office of the Secretary of the Army, the appellate authority. d. The criteria for reporting an individual in the subject block is based upon credible information to believe the individual committed the offense. Requests for amendment of such records are processed under the provisions of Army Regulation 190-45 (Law Enforcement Reporting), paragraph 3-6a, which provides, in part: An amendment of record is appropriate when such records are established as being inaccurate, irrelevant, untimely, or incomplete. Amendment procedures are not intended to permit challenging an event that actually occurred. For example, a request to remove an individual's name as the subject of an MPR [MP Report] would be proper providing credible evidence was presented to substantiate that a criminal offense was not committed or did not occur as reported. Expungement of a subject's name from a record because the commander took no action or the prosecutor elected not to prosecute...will not be approved. In compliance with DOD policy [DODI 5505.7, paragraph 6], an individual will still remain entered in the Defense Clearance and Investigations Index (DCII) to track all reports of investigations. e. An applicant may request amendment to the MP reports under the provisions of Army Regulation 25-22 (The Army Privacy Program), paragraph 8-1, when such records are established as being inaccurate, as a matter of fact rather than judgment. The conclusion reflected in the investigative summary is an investigative determination that is independent of whether judicial, nonjudicial, or administrative action was taken against the subject, or the results of such action. BOARD DISCUSSION: 1. The Board carefully considered the applicant’s request, counsel documents, supporting documents and evidence in the records. The Board considered the applicant’s statement, the nature of the misconduct, his separation and his disability retirement. The Board considered the MP report, two DA Forms 3975 and evidence of non-judicial punishment. The Board considered the request to the CRC for amendment of the records and the denial of that request. After a thorough review, the Board found sufficient evidence that there was credible information to believe the applicant committed the offenses as recorded in the contested reports. Based on a preponderance of evidence, the Board determined that the applicant’s name as subject on the reports was not in error or unjust. 2. After reviewing the application and all supporting documents, the Board found that relief was not warranted. BOARD VOTE: Mbr 1 Mbr 2 Mbr 3 : : : GRANT FULL RELIEF : : : GRANT PARTIAL RELIEF : : : GRANT FORMAL HEARING : : : DENY APPLICATION BOARD DETERMINATION/RECOMMENDATION: The evidence presented does not demonstrate the existence of a probable error or injustice. Therefore, the Board determined the overall merits of this case are insufficient as a basis for correction of the records of the individual concerned. I certify that herein is recorded the true and complete record of the proceedings of the Army Board for Correction of Military Records in this case. REFERENCES: 1. Army Regulation 190-45 (Law Enforcement Reporting) establishes policies and procedures for offense and serious-incident reporting within the Army; for reporting to the DOD and the Department of Justice, as appropriate; and for participating in the Federal Bureau of Investigation's National Crime Information Center, the Department of Justice's Criminal Justice Information System, the National Law Enforcement Telecommunications System, and State criminal justice systems. a. Paragraph 4-3a states an incident will not be reported as a founded offense unless adequately substantiated by police investigation. A person or entity will be reported as the subject of an offense on the LER when credible information exists that the person or entity has committed a criminal offense. The decision to title a person is an operational, rather than a legal, determination. The act of titling and indexing does not, in and of itself, connote any degree of guilt or innocence; rather, it ensures that information in a report of investigation can be retrieved at some future time for law enforcement and security purposes. Judicial or adverse administrative actions will not be based solely on the listing of an individual or legal entity as a subject on the LER. b. Paragraph 4-3d states that when investigative activity identifies a subject, all facts of the case must be considered. When a person, corporation, or other legal entity is entered in the "subject" block of the LER, their identity is recorded in Department of the Army automated systems and the DCII. Once entered into the DCII, the record can only be removed in cases of mistaken identity or if an error was made in applying the credible information standard at the time of listing the entity as a subject of the report. It is emphasized that the credible information error must occur at the time of listing the entity as the subject of the LER rather than subsequent investigation determining that the LER is unfounded. This policy is consistent with Department of Defense reporting requirements. The Director, CRC, enters individuals from the LER into the DCII. 2. Army Regulation 25-22 (The Army Privacy Program) sets forth policies and procedures that govern personal information kept by the Department of the Army in Privacy Act systems of records. a. Paragraph 8-1 provides that an individual may request to amend records that are retrieved by his or her name or personal identifier from a system of records unless the system has been exempted from the amendment provisions of the Act. The standard for amendment is that the records are inaccurate as a matter of fact rather than judgment, irrelevant, untimely, or incomplete. The burden of proof is on the requester. b. Amendment procedures are not intended to permit individuals to challenge events in records that have actually occurred. Amendment procedures only allow individuals to amend those items that are factually inaccurate and not matters of official judgment (for example, performance ratings, promotion potential, and job performance appraisals). In addition, an individual is not permitted to amend records for events that have been the subject of judicial or quasi-judicial actions and/or proceedings. c. CID reports of investigations have been exempted from the amendment provisions of the Privacy Act. Requests to amend these reports will be considered under Army Regulation 195-2 (Criminal Investigation Activities) by the Commander, CID. Actions by the Commander, CID, will constitute final action on behalf of the Secretary of the Army under that regulation. 3. Army Regulation 195-2 (Criminal Investigation Activities) prescribes policies and procedures pertaining to criminal investigation activities within the Department of the Army. a. Paragraph 4-4b (Amendment of CID Reports) provides that CID ROIs are exempt from the amendment provisions of the Privacy Act. Requests for amendment will be considered only under the provisions of this regulation. b. Requests to amend or unfound offenses in CID ROIs will be granted only if the individual submits new, relevant, and material facts that are determined to warrant revision of the report. The burden of proof to substantiate the request rests with the individual. c. Requests to delete a person's name from the title block will be granted if it is determined that credible information did not exist to believe the individual committed the offense for which titled as a subject at the time the investigation was initiated or the wrong person’s name has been entered as a result of mistaken identity. The decision to list a person's name in the title block of a CID ROI is an investigative determination that is independent of judicial, nonjudicial, or administrative action taken against the individual or the results of such action. d. Within these parameters, the decision to make any changes in the report rests within the sole discretion of the Commanding General, CID. The decision will constitute final action on behalf of the Secretary of the Army with respect to requests for amendment under this regulation. 4. DOD Instruction 5505.7 (Titling and Indexing of Individuals in the CDII) provides that DOD components authorized to conduct criminal investigations will title and index subjects of criminal investigations as soon as the investigation determines there is credible information that the subject committed a criminal offense. Victims and incidentals associated with criminal investigations can be titled and indexed. Titling and indexing are administrative procedures and will not imply any degree of guilt or innocence. Once the subject of a criminal investigation is indexed in the DCII, the information will remain in the DCII, even if the subject is found not guilty of the offense under investigation, unless there is mistaken identity or it is later determined no credible information existed at the time of titling and indexing. 5. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM), chapter 7, addresses trauma and stress or related disorders. The DSM is published by the American Psychiatric Association (APA) and provides standard criteria and common language for classification of mental disorders. a. In 1980, the APA added PTSD to the third edition of its DSM nosologic classification scheme. Although controversial when first introduced, the PTSD diagnosis has filled an important gap in psychiatric theory and practice. From a historical perspective, the significant change ushered in by the PTSD concept was the stipulation that the etiological agent was outside the individual (i.e., a traumatic event) rather than an inherent individual weakness (i.e., a traumatic neurosis). The key to understanding the scientific basis and clinical expression of PTSD is the concept of "trauma." b. The fifth edition of the DSM was released in May 2013. This revision includes changes to the diagnostic criteria for PTSD and acute stress disorder. The PTSD diagnostic criteria were revised to take into account things that have been learned from scientific research and clinical experience. The revised diagnostic criteria for PTSD include a history of exposure to a traumatic event that meets specific stipulations and symptoms from each of four symptom clusters: intrusion, avoidance, negative alterations in cognitions and mood, and alterations in arousal and reactivity. The sixth criterion concerns duration of symptoms, the seventh criterion assesses functioning, and the eighth criterion clarifies symptoms as not attributable to a substance or co- occurring medical condition. 6. On 25 July 2018, the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness issued guidance to Discharge Review Boards and Boards for Correction of Military/Naval Records (BCM/NRs) regarding equity, injustice, or clemency determinations. Clemency generally refers to relief specifically granted from a criminal sentence. BCM/NRs may grant clemency regardless of the court-martial forum. However, the guidance applies to more than clemency from a sentencing in a court- martial; it also applies to any other corrections, including changes in a discharge, which may be warranted on equity or relief from injustice grounds. This guidance does not mandate relief, but rather provides standards and principles to guide BCM/NRs in application of their equitable relief authority. In determining whether to grant relief on the basis of equity, injustice, or clemency grounds, BCM/NRs shall consider the prospect for rehabilitation, external evidence, sworn testimony, policy changes, relative severity of misconduct, mental and behavioral health conditions, official governmental acknowledgement that a relevant error or injustice was committed, and uniformity of punishment. Changes to the narrative reason for discharge and/or an upgraded character of service granted solely on equity, injustice, or clemency grounds normally should not result in separation pay, retroactive promotions, and payment of past medical expenses or similar benefits that might have been received if the original discharge had been for the revised reason or had the upgraded service characterization. ABCMR Record of Proceedings (cont) AR20180013820 9 1